101. Which signaling type is used by ISDN?
a. Out-of channel
b. In-band
c. Destructive
d. In-channel
e. Out-of-band
102. What command will set a router’s default network to 10.120.4.0?
103. How many D channels are available in an ISDN PRI circuit?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
104. What command sets framing on a PRI interface?
105. Which of these services are provided by Cisco NAT?
a. Domain name resolution
b. Static address translation
c. TCP load balancing
d. IP to MAC address resolution
106. What is indicated by the ISDN prefix ‘Q’?
a. The protocol addresses general methods, concepts, and terminology
b. The protocol addresses signal and switching technology
c. The protocol addresses recommended telephone networking standards
d. None of the above
107. What is a DTE?
a. Digital Termination Endpoint
b. Digital Terminal Equipment
c. Data Terminal Equipment
d. Data Terminal Endpoint
108. What command will display D channel information for BRI interface 2?
109. What is the correct command set for setting up Modem Auto Discovery?
110. What command will map a local IP to a global IP?
111. Which of these ISDN elements represents the local loop terminator?
a. NT1
b. TE1
c. LE
d. NT2
112. What command will display the ppp negotiation process?
113. What is indicated by the ISDN protocol prefix ‘E’?
a. The protocol addresses recommended telephone networking standards
b. The protocol addresses signal and switching technology
c. The protocol addresses general methods, concepts, and terminology
d. None of the above
114. What feature enables tracking of services and the network resource consumption?
a. PPP accounting
b. AAA logging
c. AAA accounting
115. What command will enable a PPP client to dial in to an interface and request a callback?
116. What is the function of Frame Relay BECN?
a. A frame sent from the Frame-Relay switch to the source router when network congestion is detected
b. Signaling between the CPE and the Frame-Relay switch that is responsible for managing the connection and maintaining status between devices
c. The rateat which a Frame-Relay switch agrees to transfer data
d. Identifies the logical virtual circuit between CPE and the Frame-Relay switch
117. Which signal indicates that the DTE is available to accept a call?
a. DTR up
b. RTS up
c. CTS up
d. DSR up
118. What is the function of the 12f protocol in VPDN?
a. Tunneling link level protocols over higher protocols
b. Network authentication
c. Network authentication and trust relationships
d. Setting up trust relationships
119. What command will configure a Cisco 700 series router to accept data from phone number 3562310?
120. What three steps are required for Modem Auto Configuration?
a. Set up auto-answer functionality
b. Manage the Modemcap database
c. Select the modem to be used on the line
d. Set up Modem Auto Discovery
121. What is the total bandwidth available on a single ISDN B channel?
a. 16 Kbps
b. 56 Kbps
c. 64 Kbps
d. 128 Kbps
122. What are the two transmission protocols used for sending IP traffic over point-to-point serial links?
a. SNA
b. HDLC
c. SLIP
d. PPP
123. Establishing a telnet session out an asynchronous line (instead of accepting the connection into the line) is known as what?
a. reverse telnet
b. tty telnet
c. rlogin
d. remote telnet
124. In which signaling method do set up, control, and terminate signals travel in the same channel with users’ voice calls and data?
a. out-of-channel signaling
b. in-channel signaling
c. cross signaling
d. in-band signaling
125. What protocol permits tunneling of link layer frames within a VPDN?
a. LZE
b. LZF
c. L3F
d. L2F
126. What command is used to select ppp authentication type?
127. What command will specify the switch type the router will communicate with?
128. What command will activate a line when the primary interface reaches 80% and deactivate it when 30% is reached?
129. Which of the following is the signaling protocol used for the D channel in ISDN?
a. Frame-Relay
b. ATM
c. LAPD
d. CHAP
130. Which of these are enabling technologies for remote access design?
a. Security Facilities
b. Internet Access
c. Fast Modems
d. Network Protocols
131. Which of these features allows a Cisco router to automatically negotiate its own registered WAN interface IP address from a central server and to enable all remote hosts to access the global Internet using this single registered IP address?
a. PPP/PAP
b. Easy IP
c. NAT
d. PAT
132. What term is given to a statically-configured route that has a high administrative distance so that it can be overridden by dynamically-learned routing information?
a. floating static route
b. default route
c. last-resort static route
d. gateway of last resort
133. Which of these distance-vector protocols support snapshot routing?
a. IP IGRP
b. RTP (Banyan)
c. RTMP (Apple)
d. IP OSPF
e. IP RIP
134. What command prevents IPX watchdog packets from activating a DDR link?
135. What command enables Stacker compression?
136. What command displays modem entries in the Modemcap database?
137. What are the two primary reasons for implementing Asynchronous Callback?
a. Call tracing/tracking
b. Cost savings on toll calls
c. Network security
d. Consolidation of billing
138. What WICs are supported by the Cisco 1604 router?
a. ISDN BRI S/T, and serail
b. Serial
c. ISDN BRI U
d. ISDN BRI S/T, ISDN BRI U, and serial
139. How many B channels are available in a T1 ISDN PRI circuit?
a. 23
b. 24
c. 25
d. 31
140. What command will enable the use of routing protocols on an asynchronous interface?
141. What command will view information for both B channels on a BRI interface 0?
142. Which of the following are modulation standards used on modems?
a. CCITT Standards
b. Proprietary methods
c. RFC Standards
d. IETF Standards
143. Which of the following services is provided by Cisco access servers?
a. LAT
b. DNS
c. Telnet
d. ISDN
144. How many ISDN B channels are available in a European ISDN PRI circuit?
a. 1
b. 16
c. 24
d. 30
145. How many PCMCIA slots are provided on a Cisco 1600 router?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
146. Which of these ISDN elements represents the Non-ISDN terminal equipment?
a. LE
b. TE2
c. NT1
d. NT2
147. What is the port configuration on a Cisco 1601 router?
a. 1 Ethernet, and 1 synchronous 56Kbps serial port with integrated CSU/DSU
b. 1 Ethernet, and 1 BRI S/T port
c. 1 Ethernet, serial port
d. 1 Ethernet, 1 FDDI, and 1 BRI U port
148. What command will display modem history event status on a manageable modem?
149. What is the port configuration for a Cisco AS5200?
a. 1 Ethernet
b. 48 asynchronous serial
c. 3 Ethernet
d. 2 synchronous serial
150. What command enables RTS/CTS flow control on a serial line?
151. Which type of line on access servers is used for incoming Telnet, LAT, X.25 PAD, and protocol translation connections into synchronous ports?
a. VTY
b. CON
c. TTY
d. AUX
152. Which protocol translation type requires a connection to a router prior to connection to a remote host?
a. inout translation
b. FIFO translation
c. One-step translation
d. Two-step translation
153. Which of the following points is between a TE1 device and a NT2 device?
a. R
b. U
c. T
d. S
154. Which of these protocols does Cisco Access Servers provide asynchronous routing services for?
a. IPX
b. IP
c. SNA
d. LAT
155. What is the function of a profile in a Cisco 700 router?
a. IP traffic filter
b. Access list used to grant specific rights to each user that accesses the router
c. Configuration file users can load into the router to facilitate fast router setup and configuration
d. Router access list
156. Which of these should be checked if a modem on the access server is not responding?
a. See if the configuration is set to factory default
b. See if the modem is plugged in and turned on
c. Test reverse Telnet on the modem
d. Ping the modem
157. Which of these is an example of protocol translation?
a. PAP to CHAP
b. Telnet to IP
c. IP to LAT
d. LAT to Telnet
158. What command will specify the first interface when using dialer profiles?
a. interface dialer 0
b. inteface profile 0
c. interface profile 1
d. interface dialer 1
159. What creates a static binding between the per-destination call specification and the physical interface configuration?
a. ISDN
b. Legacy DDR
c. X.25
d. Dialer Profiles
160. Which of the following is used for primary and shred packet memory?
a. ROM
b. NVRAM
c. Flash
d. RAM
161. What is the standard port configuration of a Cisco 1604 router with no WICs installed?
a. 1 Ethernet, serial port
b. 1 Ethernet, and 1 synchronous 56Kbps serial port with integrated CSU/DSU
c. 1 Ethernet, and 1 BRI U port
d. 1 Ethernet, and 1 BRI S/T port
162. Which of the following are virtual terminal emulators supported by Cisco Access Servers for incoming sessions?
a. X.25 PAD
b. LAT
c. rlogin
d. TELNET
163. Which of the following are common reasons for using a chat script?
a. Initializing a directly attached modem
b. To configure a banner message
c. To log into a remote system
d. To configure the event log
164. What command is used to associate an access list with a dialer group?
165. Which of the following routers supports the Cisco IOS and would be used for a small home office?
a. Cisco 200
b. Cisco 700
c. Cisco 900
d. Cisco 1600
166. How many D channels are available in a ISDN BRI circuit?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
167. What command is used to remove an integrated modem from service?
a. set modem disable
b. modem disable
c. disable modem
d. modem bad
168. What command enables slip encapsulation?
169. Which of these commands would be used to specify the destination string to be called for interfaces calling a single site?
a. dialer string
b. dialer v.25
c. dialer dtr
d. dialer map
170. Which one of these PPP authentication methods will send usernames and passwords as clear-text strings?
a. chat
b. chap
c. nat
d. pap
171. What does the ISDN protocol prefix ‘I’ indicate?
a. The protocol addresses general methods, concepts, and terminology
b. The protocol addresses signal and switching technology
c. The protocol addresses recommended telephone networking standards
d. None of the above
172. Which of these remote access methods allows a user to connect directly to the network and use network resources?
a. Remote-Node
b. Remote Virtual Connections
c. Remote-Control
d. Remote-Gateway
173. Which of these ports are logging messages directed to by default?
a. AUX
b. VTY
c. CON
d. TTY
174. What signal indicates that the DCE is ready for use?
a. DTR
b. CTS
c. DSR
d. RTS
175. Which of these points is between a TE2 device and a TA device?
a. S
b. U
c. R
d. T
Answer key:
1. C
2. C
3. show line
4. 2511# configure terminal
2511 (config)# line 1
2511 (config-line)# modem autoconfigure type usr_sportster
2511 (config-line)# flowcontrol hardware
2511 (config-line)# modem inout
5. B
6. A,C
7. ip route 172.21.100.0 255.255.255.0 172.21.3.1
8. compress predictor
9. D
10. D
11. A
12. ip host modem3 2003 10.1.2.3, telnet modem3
13. backup interface [type number | type slot/port | type slot/port-adapter/port]
14. A,B,C,D
15. encapsulation ppp
16. ppp multilink
17. A,C,D
18. D
19. D
20. ‘tn3270 10.1.1.2’
21. A
22. dialer in-band
23. D
24. A,B,C
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. B
29. D
30. transport input
31. B
32. Debug vpdn 12f-errors
33. D
34. show interfaces bri 2 1 2
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. B
39. B
40. ip address-pool
41. B
42. B
43. Router(config)#vty-async
44. C
45. A
46. debug vpdn
47. ipx route 30 50.0000.0c07.00c2
48. D
49. B
50. logging host
51. linecode { b8zs | hdb3 }
52. A,D
53. dialer load-threshold 128 either
54. C
55. router odr
56. A
57. debug confmodem
58. D
59. A
60. show controller t1 0
61. ‘show sessions’ or ‘where’
62. ip local pool
63. C
64. A,D
65. B
66. D
67. A
68. C
69. physical-layer async
70. A
71. C
72. A,B,C,E
73. ‘host%CTRL^X, Router#resume 3’ ‘host% CTRL^X, Router#3’
74. C
75. A,C
76. B,C,D
77. D
78. access-list access-list-number permit source [source-wildcard]
ip nat inside source lis access-list-number interface dialer-name overload
79. test modem back-to-back
80. D
81. B,C,D
82. username Elvis autocommand menu file
83. A
84. A,D
85. A,B,C,E
86. U
87. D
88. debug vpdn events
89. clear ip nat translation *
90. isdn spidl [spid-number] [local dial number]
91. C,D
92. dialer rotary-group
93. rxspeed {bps}
94. B
95. C
96. A,C,D
97. show modem summary
98. C
99. B
100. C
101. E
102. Ip default-network 10.120.4.0
103. A
104. framing { esf | crc4 }
105. B,C
106. B
107. C
108. show interfaces bri 2
109. 2511# configure terminal
2511 (config)# line 1 16
2511 (config-line)# modem autoconfigure discovery
110. static [global_ip][local_ip]
111. A
112. debug ppp negotiation
113. A
114. C
115. ppp callback
116. A
117. A
118. A
119. Set calleridreceive=3562310
120. B,C,D
121. C
122. C,D
123. A
124. D
125. D
126. ppp authentication [pap | chap]
127. isdn switch-type
128. backup load 90 20
129. C
130. A,C,D
131. B
132. A
133. A,B,C,E
134. ipx watchdog-spoof
135. compress stac
136. show modemcap
137. B,D
138. B
139. B
140. async dynamic routing
141. show int bri 0 1 2
142. A,B
143. A,C
144. D
145. A
146. B
147. C
148. show modem log
149. A,B,D
150. flowcontrol hardware
151. A
152. D
153. D
154. A,B
155. C
156. A,B,C
157. D
158. A
159. B
160. D
161. C
162. A,B,D
163. A,C
164. dialer-list [group-number] list [list-number
165. D
166. A
167. D
168. encapsulation slip
169. A
170. D
171. A
172. A
173. C
174. C
175. C
a. Out-of channel
b. In-band
c. Destructive
d. In-channel
e. Out-of-band
102. What command will set a router’s default network to 10.120.4.0?
103. How many D channels are available in an ISDN PRI circuit?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
104. What command sets framing on a PRI interface?
105. Which of these services are provided by Cisco NAT?
a. Domain name resolution
b. Static address translation
c. TCP load balancing
d. IP to MAC address resolution
106. What is indicated by the ISDN prefix ‘Q’?
a. The protocol addresses general methods, concepts, and terminology
b. The protocol addresses signal and switching technology
c. The protocol addresses recommended telephone networking standards
d. None of the above
107. What is a DTE?
a. Digital Termination Endpoint
b. Digital Terminal Equipment
c. Data Terminal Equipment
d. Data Terminal Endpoint
108. What command will display D channel information for BRI interface 2?
109. What is the correct command set for setting up Modem Auto Discovery?
110. What command will map a local IP to a global IP?
111. Which of these ISDN elements represents the local loop terminator?
a. NT1
b. TE1
c. LE
d. NT2
112. What command will display the ppp negotiation process?
113. What is indicated by the ISDN protocol prefix ‘E’?
a. The protocol addresses recommended telephone networking standards
b. The protocol addresses signal and switching technology
c. The protocol addresses general methods, concepts, and terminology
d. None of the above
114. What feature enables tracking of services and the network resource consumption?
a. PPP accounting
b. AAA logging
c. AAA accounting
115. What command will enable a PPP client to dial in to an interface and request a callback?
116. What is the function of Frame Relay BECN?
a. A frame sent from the Frame-Relay switch to the source router when network congestion is detected
b. Signaling between the CPE and the Frame-Relay switch that is responsible for managing the connection and maintaining status between devices
c. The rateat which a Frame-Relay switch agrees to transfer data
d. Identifies the logical virtual circuit between CPE and the Frame-Relay switch
117. Which signal indicates that the DTE is available to accept a call?
a. DTR up
b. RTS up
c. CTS up
d. DSR up
118. What is the function of the 12f protocol in VPDN?
a. Tunneling link level protocols over higher protocols
b. Network authentication
c. Network authentication and trust relationships
d. Setting up trust relationships
119. What command will configure a Cisco 700 series router to accept data from phone number 3562310?
120. What three steps are required for Modem Auto Configuration?
a. Set up auto-answer functionality
b. Manage the Modemcap database
c. Select the modem to be used on the line
d. Set up Modem Auto Discovery
121. What is the total bandwidth available on a single ISDN B channel?
a. 16 Kbps
b. 56 Kbps
c. 64 Kbps
d. 128 Kbps
122. What are the two transmission protocols used for sending IP traffic over point-to-point serial links?
a. SNA
b. HDLC
c. SLIP
d. PPP
123. Establishing a telnet session out an asynchronous line (instead of accepting the connection into the line) is known as what?
a. reverse telnet
b. tty telnet
c. rlogin
d. remote telnet
124. In which signaling method do set up, control, and terminate signals travel in the same channel with users’ voice calls and data?
a. out-of-channel signaling
b. in-channel signaling
c. cross signaling
d. in-band signaling
125. What protocol permits tunneling of link layer frames within a VPDN?
a. LZE
b. LZF
c. L3F
d. L2F
126. What command is used to select ppp authentication type?
127. What command will specify the switch type the router will communicate with?
128. What command will activate a line when the primary interface reaches 80% and deactivate it when 30% is reached?
129. Which of the following is the signaling protocol used for the D channel in ISDN?
a. Frame-Relay
b. ATM
c. LAPD
d. CHAP
130. Which of these are enabling technologies for remote access design?
a. Security Facilities
b. Internet Access
c. Fast Modems
d. Network Protocols
131. Which of these features allows a Cisco router to automatically negotiate its own registered WAN interface IP address from a central server and to enable all remote hosts to access the global Internet using this single registered IP address?
a. PPP/PAP
b. Easy IP
c. NAT
d. PAT
132. What term is given to a statically-configured route that has a high administrative distance so that it can be overridden by dynamically-learned routing information?
a. floating static route
b. default route
c. last-resort static route
d. gateway of last resort
133. Which of these distance-vector protocols support snapshot routing?
a. IP IGRP
b. RTP (Banyan)
c. RTMP (Apple)
d. IP OSPF
e. IP RIP
134. What command prevents IPX watchdog packets from activating a DDR link?
135. What command enables Stacker compression?
136. What command displays modem entries in the Modemcap database?
137. What are the two primary reasons for implementing Asynchronous Callback?
a. Call tracing/tracking
b. Cost savings on toll calls
c. Network security
d. Consolidation of billing
138. What WICs are supported by the Cisco 1604 router?
a. ISDN BRI S/T, and serail
b. Serial
c. ISDN BRI U
d. ISDN BRI S/T, ISDN BRI U, and serial
139. How many B channels are available in a T1 ISDN PRI circuit?
a. 23
b. 24
c. 25
d. 31
140. What command will enable the use of routing protocols on an asynchronous interface?
141. What command will view information for both B channels on a BRI interface 0?
142. Which of the following are modulation standards used on modems?
a. CCITT Standards
b. Proprietary methods
c. RFC Standards
d. IETF Standards
143. Which of the following services is provided by Cisco access servers?
a. LAT
b. DNS
c. Telnet
d. ISDN
144. How many ISDN B channels are available in a European ISDN PRI circuit?
a. 1
b. 16
c. 24
d. 30
145. How many PCMCIA slots are provided on a Cisco 1600 router?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
146. Which of these ISDN elements represents the Non-ISDN terminal equipment?
a. LE
b. TE2
c. NT1
d. NT2
147. What is the port configuration on a Cisco 1601 router?
a. 1 Ethernet, and 1 synchronous 56Kbps serial port with integrated CSU/DSU
b. 1 Ethernet, and 1 BRI S/T port
c. 1 Ethernet, serial port
d. 1 Ethernet, 1 FDDI, and 1 BRI U port
148. What command will display modem history event status on a manageable modem?
149. What is the port configuration for a Cisco AS5200?
a. 1 Ethernet
b. 48 asynchronous serial
c. 3 Ethernet
d. 2 synchronous serial
150. What command enables RTS/CTS flow control on a serial line?
151. Which type of line on access servers is used for incoming Telnet, LAT, X.25 PAD, and protocol translation connections into synchronous ports?
a. VTY
b. CON
c. TTY
d. AUX
152. Which protocol translation type requires a connection to a router prior to connection to a remote host?
a. inout translation
b. FIFO translation
c. One-step translation
d. Two-step translation
153. Which of the following points is between a TE1 device and a NT2 device?
a. R
b. U
c. T
d. S
154. Which of these protocols does Cisco Access Servers provide asynchronous routing services for?
a. IPX
b. IP
c. SNA
d. LAT
155. What is the function of a profile in a Cisco 700 router?
a. IP traffic filter
b. Access list used to grant specific rights to each user that accesses the router
c. Configuration file users can load into the router to facilitate fast router setup and configuration
d. Router access list
156. Which of these should be checked if a modem on the access server is not responding?
a. See if the configuration is set to factory default
b. See if the modem is plugged in and turned on
c. Test reverse Telnet on the modem
d. Ping the modem
157. Which of these is an example of protocol translation?
a. PAP to CHAP
b. Telnet to IP
c. IP to LAT
d. LAT to Telnet
158. What command will specify the first interface when using dialer profiles?
a. interface dialer 0
b. inteface profile 0
c. interface profile 1
d. interface dialer 1
159. What creates a static binding between the per-destination call specification and the physical interface configuration?
a. ISDN
b. Legacy DDR
c. X.25
d. Dialer Profiles
160. Which of the following is used for primary and shred packet memory?
a. ROM
b. NVRAM
c. Flash
d. RAM
161. What is the standard port configuration of a Cisco 1604 router with no WICs installed?
a. 1 Ethernet, serial port
b. 1 Ethernet, and 1 synchronous 56Kbps serial port with integrated CSU/DSU
c. 1 Ethernet, and 1 BRI U port
d. 1 Ethernet, and 1 BRI S/T port
162. Which of the following are virtual terminal emulators supported by Cisco Access Servers for incoming sessions?
a. X.25 PAD
b. LAT
c. rlogin
d. TELNET
163. Which of the following are common reasons for using a chat script?
a. Initializing a directly attached modem
b. To configure a banner message
c. To log into a remote system
d. To configure the event log
164. What command is used to associate an access list with a dialer group?
165. Which of the following routers supports the Cisco IOS and would be used for a small home office?
a. Cisco 200
b. Cisco 700
c. Cisco 900
d. Cisco 1600
166. How many D channels are available in a ISDN BRI circuit?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
167. What command is used to remove an integrated modem from service?
a. set modem disable
b. modem disable
c. disable modem
d. modem bad
168. What command enables slip encapsulation?
169. Which of these commands would be used to specify the destination string to be called for interfaces calling a single site?
a. dialer string
b. dialer v.25
c. dialer dtr
d. dialer map
170. Which one of these PPP authentication methods will send usernames and passwords as clear-text strings?
a. chat
b. chap
c. nat
d. pap
171. What does the ISDN protocol prefix ‘I’ indicate?
a. The protocol addresses general methods, concepts, and terminology
b. The protocol addresses signal and switching technology
c. The protocol addresses recommended telephone networking standards
d. None of the above
172. Which of these remote access methods allows a user to connect directly to the network and use network resources?
a. Remote-Node
b. Remote Virtual Connections
c. Remote-Control
d. Remote-Gateway
173. Which of these ports are logging messages directed to by default?
a. AUX
b. VTY
c. CON
d. TTY
174. What signal indicates that the DCE is ready for use?
a. DTR
b. CTS
c. DSR
d. RTS
175. Which of these points is between a TE2 device and a TA device?
a. S
b. U
c. R
d. T
Answer key:
1. C
2. C
3. show line
4. 2511# configure terminal
2511 (config)# line 1
2511 (config-line)# modem autoconfigure type usr_sportster
2511 (config-line)# flowcontrol hardware
2511 (config-line)# modem inout
5. B
6. A,C
7. ip route 172.21.100.0 255.255.255.0 172.21.3.1
8. compress predictor
9. D
10. D
11. A
12. ip host modem3 2003 10.1.2.3, telnet modem3
13. backup interface [type number | type slot/port | type slot/port-adapter/port]
14. A,B,C,D
15. encapsulation ppp
16. ppp multilink
17. A,C,D
18. D
19. D
20. ‘tn3270 10.1.1.2’
21. A
22. dialer in-band
23. D
24. A,B,C
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. B
29. D
30. transport input
31. B
32. Debug vpdn 12f-errors
33. D
34. show interfaces bri 2 1 2
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. B
39. B
40. ip address-pool
41. B
42. B
43. Router(config)#vty-async
44. C
45. A
46. debug vpdn
47. ipx route 30 50.0000.0c07.00c2
48. D
49. B
50. logging host
51. linecode { b8zs | hdb3 }
52. A,D
53. dialer load-threshold 128 either
54. C
55. router odr
56. A
57. debug confmodem
58. D
59. A
60. show controller t1 0
61. ‘show sessions’ or ‘where’
62. ip local pool
63. C
64. A,D
65. B
66. D
67. A
68. C
69. physical-layer async
70. A
71. C
72. A,B,C,E
73. ‘host%CTRL^X, Router#resume 3’ ‘host% CTRL^X, Router#3’
74. C
75. A,C
76. B,C,D
77. D
78. access-list access-list-number permit source [source-wildcard]
ip nat inside source lis access-list-number interface dialer-name overload
79. test modem back-to-back
80. D
81. B,C,D
82. username Elvis autocommand menu file
83. A
84. A,D
85. A,B,C,E
86. U
87. D
88. debug vpdn events
89. clear ip nat translation *
90. isdn spidl [spid-number] [local dial number]
91. C,D
92. dialer rotary-group
93. rxspeed {bps}
94. B
95. C
96. A,C,D
97. show modem summary
98. C
99. B
100. C
101. E
102. Ip default-network 10.120.4.0
103. A
104. framing { esf | crc4 }
105. B,C
106. B
107. C
108. show interfaces bri 2
109. 2511# configure terminal
2511 (config)# line 1 16
2511 (config-line)# modem autoconfigure discovery
110. static [global_ip][local_ip]
111. A
112. debug ppp negotiation
113. A
114. C
115. ppp callback
116. A
117. A
118. A
119. Set calleridreceive=3562310
120. B,C,D
121. C
122. C,D
123. A
124. D
125. D
126. ppp authentication [pap | chap]
127. isdn switch-type
128. backup load 90 20
129. C
130. A,C,D
131. B
132. A
133. A,B,C,E
134. ipx watchdog-spoof
135. compress stac
136. show modemcap
137. B,D
138. B
139. B
140. async dynamic routing
141. show int bri 0 1 2
142. A,B
143. A,C
144. D
145. A
146. B
147. C
148. show modem log
149. A,B,D
150. flowcontrol hardware
151. A
152. D
153. D
154. A,B
155. C
156. A,B,C
157. D
158. A
159. B
160. D
161. C
162. A,B,D
163. A,C
164. dialer-list [group-number] list [list-number
165. D
166. A
167. D
168. encapsulation slip
169. A
170. D
171. A
172. A
173. C
174. C
175. C